Thứ Ba, 2 tháng 11, 2010

CCNA3 FINAL - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

Take Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0) 
November 02, 2010
           
1
 
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

discard the frame

forward the frame out port 2

forward the frame out port 3

forward the frame out all ports

forward the frame out all ports except port 3

add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table


   
2


Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues the commands as shown on SwitchB. What is the result for port Fa0/22?



The port is disabled.

Security is enabled on the port.

The port becomes a trunk port.

The port is now a member of the default VLAN.


   
3
What is one reason that SSID cloaking is not considered an effective security measure for a wireless network?
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The SSID is not required to connect to a wireless network.

The SSID is broadcast in probe messages from clients that are looking for the AP.

The SSID is the same as the AP MAC address, which is sent in every message.

An attacker can spoof the SSID simply by using an SSID of NULL in all messages.


   
4


Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

192.168.1.11 /28

192.168.1.22 /28

192.168.1.33 /28

192.168.1.44 /28

192.168.1.55 /28


   
 5
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?

This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.

This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.

This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.

This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.


   
6


Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS

routing

trunking

VPN


   
7


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has designed and implemented a hierarchical network. What is the maximum network diameter between any two hosts on the network?

five

six

ten

twelve


   
8

A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?

probing

beaconing

association

authentication


   
 9
What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID

autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections

allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types

places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge


   
 10


Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?

The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.

The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.

The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.


   
11



Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.

Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.

Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.

Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.


   
12
What is the purpose of the switch command switchport access vlan 99?


to enable port security

to make the port operational

to assign the port to a particular VLAN

to designate the VLAN that does not get tagged

to assign the port to the native VLAN (VLAN 99)


   
 13


Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)

Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.

Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.

Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.

Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.


   
14


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP server to Switch1. Which command will accomplish this task?

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-config

Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-config


   
15
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?

A new RSA key pair is created.

The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.

The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.

The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.


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16
Which statement about STP network diameter is correct?

STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.

Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter.

Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter.

Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.


   
 17
In the implementation of PVST+ in a specific VLAN where all switches have default spanning tree priorities, which spanning-tree command setting could be assigned to force one of the Catalyst switches to become and remain the root bridge?

root primary

priority 8192

priority 2048

spanning-tree mode rapid pvst


   
18



Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?

SW1(config)# vtp version 1

SW2(config)# vtp mode client

SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1

SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent


   
19
In an attempt to improve switch performance, a network administrator changes the MAC aging time to ten seconds. What is a likely result of this decision?

The MAC table will fill with unused addresses.

Address conflicts will cause retransmission errors.

Unnecessary flooding will slow network performance.

Timely MAC address updates will ensure rapid delivery of frames.


   
 20
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?

Connect each PC directly to a router port.

Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.

Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.

Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.


   
21
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

lowest bridge ID

highest revision number

lowest numeric IP address

highest numeric MAC address


   
22



Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

zero

four

five

eight

nine


   
 23



Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?

All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.

SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.

VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.


   
24



Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?

The port will transition into blocking state.

The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.

The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.


   
25


Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?

This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.

When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.

The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.


   
26
Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

BPDU frames

multicast frames

broadcast frames

Layer 3 packets


   
27



Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

all hosts that are shown

only hosts B and C

only hosts A, B, and C

only hosts A, B, C, and D

only hosts A, D, E, and F

only hosts D, E, and F


   
 28
Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?

WPA2

cloaking SSIDs

shared WEP key

MAC address filtering


   
 29


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?

The interface is not configured to transmit data.

The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.

The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.

The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.


   
30
What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?

to control the broadcast domain size

to eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs

to transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port

to increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device


31
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?

client

root

server

transparent


   
 32
When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?

subinterfaces

routing protocol

switched virtual circuits

dynamic trunking protocol


   
33


Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?

It will be dropped.

It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.

It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.


   
 34


Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

AS1 and AS2

DS1 and DS2

DS1, DS2, and CS1

AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2


   
35


Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A

switch B

switch C

switch D

switch E

switch F


   
 36
Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

Available bandwidth is reduced.

MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

The payload encryption is easily broken.


   
37



Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)

This switch is not the root bridge.

The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.

STP has detected links that create a loop.

There is a change in the VTP configuration.

The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.


   
 38




Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)

revision number

existing VLANs

operating mode

domain name

pruning mode


   
39
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

The command contained a syntax error.

The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.


   
 40



Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?

Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)

Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)

Common Spanning Tree (CST)

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)


   
41



Refer to the exhibit. All switch interfaces are members of the same VLAN. What information is used by Switch1 to determine if incoming frames from the hosts should be forwarded to Router1?

the source address field in the IP header

the destination port number in the TCP header

the destination address field in the Layer 3 header

the destination address field in the Ethernet header


   
42


Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?

The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.

The transport input command must specify Telnet access.

The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.

The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.


   
43
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?

DSSS

OFDM

SSID

WPA


   
44
How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?

The frames are dropped.

The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.

The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.


   
 45
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?

SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.

SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.

SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.

SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.


46
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)

Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.

The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.

The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.

Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.

The router should be configured as the VTP server.


   
47


Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?

Relocate the APs closer to each other.

Increase the distance between the clients.

Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.

Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.


   
 48
What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?

It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.

It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.

It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.

It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.


   
49



Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.

Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces.

The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1.

Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.

The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.


   
50


Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.

Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.

The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.

Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.

If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.


   
 51
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?

to restrict traffic on specified trunk lines

to designate switches that do not participate in VTP

to advertise VTP domain information to specified switches only

to reduce the propagation of VTP advertisements in the switched network


   
 52
What operational change will occur if an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g?

The 802.11g clients will disassociate from the AP.

The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.

The 802.11b client will never gain access to the channel.

The 802.11b client will not be able to establish an IP session with any of the other 802.11g clients.
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Chủ Nhật, 7 tháng 3, 2010

CCNA3 Final - 04 March 2010

CCNA3 Final - 04 March 2010 
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Welcome and get lastest CCNA Exploration 4.0 Questions and answers
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1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.

A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.
Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
BID
LSA
LSU
BPDU
15
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
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16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.

What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
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31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
http://www.ccna4u.org

39
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
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Take Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
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46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates

has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
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Thứ Bảy, 2 tháng 1, 2010

CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 8 Exam Answers


1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

  • backbone cable
  • horizontal cable
  • patch cable
  • work area cable


2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

  • BNC
  • RJ-11
  • RJ-45
  • Type F



3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

  • when connecting a router through the console port
  • when connecting one switch to another switch
  • when connecting a host to a switch
  • when connecting a router to another router


4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

  • the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
  • the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
  • the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
  • the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously


5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

  • Presentation
  • Transport
  • Data Link
  • Physical


6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

  • light injector
  • OTDR
  • TDR
  • multimeter


7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

  • coax
  • Cat4 UTP
  • Cat5 UTP
  • Cat6 UTP
  • STP


8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

  • Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
  • Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
  • An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
  • The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.


9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

  • goodput
  • frequency
  • amplitude
  • throughput
  • crosstalk
  • bandwidth








10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

  • coax cable
  • rollover cable
  • crossover cable
  • straight-through cable


11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

  • coax
  • fiber
  • Cat5e UTP
  • Cat6 UTP
  • STP


12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?







 


 


 


13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

  • electrical
  • optical
  • wireless
  • acoustic


14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

  • It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
  • Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
  • It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
  • It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
  • It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.


15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

  • generally uses LEDs as the light source
  • relatively larger core with multiple light paths
  • less expensive than multimode
  • generally uses lasers as the light source


16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

  • more host mobility
  • lower security risks
  • reduced susceptibility to interference
  • less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area


17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

  • the metal braiding in the shielding
  • the reflective cladding around core
  • the twisting of the wires in the cable
  • the insulating material in the outer jacket


18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

  • create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
  • provide physical addressing to the devices
  • determine the path packets take through the network
  • control data access to the media


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CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 9 Exam Answers

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

  • Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
  • Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
  • Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
  • Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
  • Network layer
  • Transport layer
  • Physical layer
  • Application layer
  • Session layer
  • Data-link layer
3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
  • the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
  • the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
  • the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
  • the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
  • the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
  • the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
  • addressing
  • error detection
  • frame delimiting
  • port identification
  • path determination
  • IP address resolution
5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
  • The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
  • The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
  • The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
  • The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
  • recognizes streams of bits
  • identifies the network layer protocol
  • makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
  • insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
  • determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
  • MAC sublayer
  • Physical layer
  • Logical Link
  • Control sublayer
  • Network layer
8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
  • A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
  • A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
  • A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
  • A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
  • header field – preamble and stop frame
  • data field – network layer packet
  • data field – physical addressing
  • trailer field – FCS and SoF
10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
  • Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
  • Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
  • A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
  • Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
  • A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
  • A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
  • Collisions can decrease network performance.
  • It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
  • Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
  • CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
  • application
  • physical
  • transport
  • internet
  • data link
  • network access
13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
  • translate URLs to IP addresses
  • resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
  • provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
  • convert internal private addresses to external public addresses


14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
  • No collisions will occur on this link.
  • Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
  • The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
  • The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.


15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
  • A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
  • A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
  • A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
  • A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
  • A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
  • A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
  • dynamically assigned
  • copied into RAM during system startup
  • layer 3 address
  • contains a 3 byte OUI
  • 6 bytes long
  • 32 bits long
17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
  • reduction in cross-talk
  • minimizing of collisions
  • support for UTP cabling
  • division into broadcast domains
  • increase in the throughput of communications
18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
  • coaxial thicknet
  • copper UTP
  • coaxial thinnet
  • optical fiber
  • shielded twisted pair
19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
  • 85
  • 90
  • BA
  • A1
  • B3
  • 1C
20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
  • the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
  • the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
  • any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
  • those that began transmitting at the same time



21. Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?
  • route PRINT
  • arp -a
  • arp -d
  • netstat
  • telnet
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CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 10 Exam Answers


1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
  • connecting a PC to a router’s console port
  • connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
  • connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
  • connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
  • connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
  • They propagate broadcasts.
  • They enlarge collision domains.
  • They segment broadcast domains.
  • They interconnect different network technologies.
  • Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
  • They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
  • router
  • hub
  • switch
  • wireless access point

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
  • STP
  • UTP
  • coaxial
  • single-mode fiber
  • multimode fiber
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
  • Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
  • Five broadcast domains are present.
  • Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
  • Four broadcast domains are present.
  • Five networks are shown.
  • Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
  • RJ 11
  • DB 60
  • Winchester 15 pin
  • DB 9
  • smart serial
  • RJ 45
7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
  • 30
  • 256
  • 2046
  • 2048
  • 4094
  • 4096
8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
  • both host A and B would be successful
  • host A would be successful, host B would fail
  • host B would be successful, host A would fail
  • both Host A and B would fail
9. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
  • 192.168.1.1
  • 192.168.2.1
  • 192.168.2.2
  • 192.168.3.1
  • 192.168.3.54
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
  • Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
  • Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
  • Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
  • Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
  • Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
  • Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
  • 255.255.255.0
  • 255.255.255.192
  • 255.255.255.224
  • 255.255.255.240
  • 255.255.255.248
12. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?
  • wireless access point
  • router
  • hub
  • switch
13. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
14. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
  • loss of signal strength as distance increases
  • time for a signal to reach its destination
  • leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
  • strengthening of a signal by a networking device
15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
  • crossover cable
  • straight through cable
  • rollover cable
  • V.35 cable
16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
  • greater distances per cable run
  • lower installation cost
  • limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
  • durable connections
  • greater bandwidth potential
  • easily terminated
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
  • 255.255.255.128
  • 255.255.255.192
  • 255.255.255.224
  • 255.255.255.240
  • 255.255.255.248
18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
  • 255.255.0.0
  • 255.255.255.0
  • 255.255.254.0
  • 255.255.248.0
19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
  • cross-over
  • straight-through
  • roll-over
  • patch cable
20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
  • AUX interface
  • Ethernet interface
  • serial interface
  • console interface
21. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
  • direct configuration of the device
  • cable color code association
  • cable selection and configuration
  • use of cable testers to determine pinouts
  • the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
  • the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
  • hub
  • switch
  • bridge
  • router
  • repeater
23. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
  • 1
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 7
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Thứ Sáu, 1 tháng 1, 2010

CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 11 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
  • UBAMA# configure terminal
  • UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
  • UBAMA(config)# line console 0
  • UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
  • UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
  • after a system restart
  • as the commands are entered
  • when logging off the system
  • when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
  • enable password class
    line console 0
    password ccna
  • enable secret cisco
    enable password class
    line console 0
    password ccna
  • enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
    enable password class
    line console 0
    password ccna
  • enable secret cisco
    enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
    line console 0
    password 7 020507550A
  • enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
    enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
    line console 0
    password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
  • AUX
  • Ethernet
  • Console
  • Telnet
  • SSH
5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
  • RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
    RouterB(config-if)# login
  • RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
    RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
    RouterB(config-vty)# login
  • RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    RouterB(config)# line vty 0
    RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
    RouterB(config-line)# login
  • RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    RouterB(config)# line aux 0
    RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
    RouterB(config-line)# login
  • RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    RouterB(config)# line aux 0
    RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
    RouterB(config-vty)# login
6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
  • show running-config
  • show startup-config
  • show interfaces
  • show ip route
  • show version
  • show memory
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
  • line configuration mode
  • user executive mode
  • global configuration mode
  • privileged executive mode
  • interface configuration mode
  • enable mode
8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
  • Router# name Fontana
  • Router# hostname Fontana
  • Router(config)# name Fontana
  • Router(config)# hostname Fontana
9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
  • Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
  • Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
  • Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
  • Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
  • IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
  • IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
  • NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
  • NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
  • NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
  • NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
  • show flash
  • show NVRAM
  • show startup-config
  • show running-config
  • show version
13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
  • hot keys
  • context-check
  • context-sensitive
  • structured check
  • command override
  • command syntax check
14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
  • The host A is turned off.
  • The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
  • The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
  • The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
  • The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
  • The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
  • Ctrl-C
  • Ctrl-P
  • Ctrl-R
  • Ctrl-Shift-6
  • Ctrl-Z
16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C.
  • What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
  • Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
  • Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
  • Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
  • Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • Flash
  • NVRAM
18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
console
19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
  • Telnet
  • Console
  • AUX
  • SSH
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