CCNA 2 - Module 1

download

download

CCNA 2 - Module 1

If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? (Choose two.)
The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
cross-over
Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
the last restart method
the configuration register settings
the location from where the IOS loaded

Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
1
4

From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
TFTP server
Flash memory

A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
the Layer 2 source and destination address

Read More

CCNA 1 - Module 7

(Updated jan 12 2009 - 100/100)

CCNA 1 - Module 7

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

• the Layer 3 protocol selected
• the geographic scope of the network
• the PDU defined by the transport layer
• the physical layer implementation
• he number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
• 00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
• 00-12-3f-32-05-af

3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
• non-deterministic
• less overhead
• one station transmits at a time
• collisions exist
• devices must wait their turn
• token passing

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
• The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
• Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
• Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
• Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions

6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
• Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
• Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
• Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.

7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
• logical topology
• physical topology
• cable path
• wiring grid
• access topology

welcome to www.ccna-4.blogspot.com

8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a pad for data
identifies the source address
identifies the destination address
marks the end of timing information
• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros

9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
• Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
• Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
• Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
• All three networks use CSMA/CA
• None of the networks require media access control.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
• Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
• Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8

12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)
• source MAC - PC
• source MAC - S0/0 on RouterA
• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB
• source IP - PC
• source IP - S0/0 on RouterA
• source IP - Fa0/1 of RouterB

13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?
• LLC
• MAC
• HDLC
• NIC

www.ccna4u.net
www.ccna4u.info

14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)
The Layer 2 address must be reassigned.
• The default gateway address should not be changed.
• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
• Applications and services will need additional port numbers assigned.
• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network.

15. What is a function of the data link layer?
• provides the formatting of data
• provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
• provides delivery of data between two applications
• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?
The nodes are physically connected.
The physical arrangement of the nodes is restricted.
• The media access control protocol can be very simple.
The data link layer protocol used over the link requires a large frame header.

17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?
• provide routes across the internetwork
• format the data for presentation to the user
• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
• identify the services to which transported data is associated

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?
• define the logical topology
• provide media access control
• support frame error detection
• carry routing information for the frame

www.ccna4u.net
www.ccna4u.info

19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)
• They are 48 binary bits in length.
• They are considered physical addresses.
• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
• They consist of four eight-bit octets of binary numbers.
• They are used to determine the data path through the network.
• They must be changed when an Ethernet device is added or moved within the network.

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 11

CCNA 2 - Module 11

download

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?

an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

area id

hello interval

network type

What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

designated router

backup designated router

What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth

A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

6

What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.
What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0

A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?

nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200

BDR for network 192.168.1.204

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.

HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.

Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

hello packets

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 2

download

download

CCNA 2 - Module 2

Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
platform
holdtime
local interface

Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:
Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.
What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
No clock rate has been set.

A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

What address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24, 172.16.3.0/24, and 172.16.4.0/24?
172.16.0.0/21

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route.

What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device

A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
Interface IP address

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP.
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ping
traceroute
show ip route

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.

The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/25

Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

A router has one static route to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate.

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

Read More

CCNA1 Final Exam version 4.0 (88%) - new

Cisco CCNA1 Final Exam version 4.0
>>download<<
http://cisconetwoking.googlepages.com/CCNA1-FINAL.html

Cisco CCNA1 Final Exam version 4.0

1.

Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

0060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

3.

The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
49152 to 65535
**1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.

8.

nslookup command on the PC

Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100

9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1

11.

Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM

13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1

15.

A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown

Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable

17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY

18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.

22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)

10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX

23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?

Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)

172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67

25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25

26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash

27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2

28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.

29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier

30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y

31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#

32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access

34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?

3
**5
7
9
11

35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26

36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.

39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?

application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.

41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer

44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0

50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)

**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

TEST IS ABOVE 88%

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 5

download

CCNA 2 - Module 5

Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?

Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3

Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still in the Router1 routing table. How much longer will Router1 keep the down network in its routing table before marking it as possibly down?
155 seconds

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip

Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8

Refer to the exhibit. Pings between the serial interfaces of the routers are successful. Hosts on each LAN can ping the Fa0/0 interface of the router to which they are directly connected through the switch. However, pings between hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 networks are unsuccessful. What is a likely cause of this problem?
RIP is configured incorrectly on R1.

What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 6

download

CCNA 2 - Module 6

What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
192.168.0.0/21

Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
32-bit address
subnet mask

Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
the shortage of IP addresses

What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied if Router A sends a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0 to Router B?
24

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
CIDR

A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
84

A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/27

An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.224/28

Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
29

Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
192.168.2.130/25

Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
192.168.4.15/29

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
Because RIPv2 does not support VLSM, the subnet masks will not be allowed.
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

What is a supernet?
a summarization of classful addresses

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 3

download

CCNA 2 - Module 3

Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.

Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

show ip route

Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?

EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)

the network is using a hub and spoke topology

the network is using a flat design

What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

shortest-path first calculations

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged

The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.

OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security

the administrator maintains control over routing

The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?

The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown

A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?

The administrative distance of this route is 1.

Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?

The cost for this link has a value of 129.

A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

OSPF can be used between the routers.

Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

3

A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

Read More

CCNA 2 - Module 4

download
download

CCNA 2 - Module 4

Which event will cause a triggered update?

a route is installed in the routing table



Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.



What does the RIP holddown timer do?

instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

updates are broadcast at regular intervals

broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255



Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

will send out an update if there is a failure of a link



Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.

EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.



Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.



What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.

Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.



Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.



The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

route poisoning



What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded



Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)

routing loops

inconsistent traffic forwarding

inconsistent routing table entries



Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.



A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.

EIGRP updates are partial.



Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.



Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

RIPv1

EIGRP

RIPv2



What is a routing loop?

a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination



Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

inconsistent routing tables

incorrectly configured static routes



What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

16



What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route



Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3

Read More

CCNA3 Final - 04 March 2010

CCNA3 Final - 04 March 2010 
(Thanks dip see) 

Welcome and get lastest CCNA Exploration 4.0 Questions and answers
Email: quocvuong.it@gmail.com
Website:
www.ccna4u.org
www.ccna4u.net
www.ccna4u.info


1
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
lowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

3
Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
4
Which device or devices should have the Spanning Tree Protocol enabled to prevent host traffic from creating a broadcast storm?
Core_S1
Access_S2 and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, and Access_S3
Core_S1, Access_S2, Access_S3, and R1
5
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
6
Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning
Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced?
Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s.
Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2.
Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch.
Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
7 What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config?
The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server.
The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1.
The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config.
The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.
8
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
the final destination port.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.9 Which two statements are correct about wireless infrastructure components? (Choose two.)
An AP converts the TCP/IP data packets from their 802.11 frame encapsulation format to the 802.3 Ethernet frame format on the
wired Ethernet network.
A wireless AP does not require any physical connection to allow wireless clients to access the Internet.
An AP is a layer 2 device, similar to a switch, that provides dedicated bandwidth to each connected wireless host.
Collisions do not occur between wireless NICs and APs.
The wireless router performs the roles of AP and router.
10
Which service should be disabled on a Cisco switch or router to prevent packet sniffers from capturing information about the device?
SSH
VTP
CDP
SNMP
11
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which
hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
12
What are three benefits of employing a hierarchical network design? (Choose three.)
Hierarchically designed networks can more easily be expanded to suit future needs.
Hierarchical design models enhance existing bandwidth through the use of link aggregation.
The hierarchical model allows for specialized functionality at each layer, simplifying device management.Use of a hierarchical design allows replacement of redundant devices with high-capacity network equipment.
A hierarchical design uses firewalls instead of complicated port-based and distribution layer security policies.
The hierarchical model allows the use of high-performance switches at all design layers, thus allowing for a fully-meshed topology.
13 A network administrator implements inter-VLAN routing by configuring subinterfaces on a router. What is one important fact that must considered?
The physical interface must have an IP address configured.
The subinterface numbers must match the VLAN ID number.
The no shutdown command must be issued on each subinterface.
The IP address of each router subinterface must be used as the default gateway for hosts on the corresponding VLAN.
14
Which type of frame contains information that is used in the election of the spanning tree root bridge?
BID
LSA
LSU
BPDU
15
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the
switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
switch F
Close Window
Assessment System
1. Assessment Selection 2. Assessment Settings 3. Take Assessment
Take Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
Wireless (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:
16
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames with a source address other than 0019.d2e4.d9f7 enters interface Fa0/24?
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
The incoming frames will be dropped.
The Fa0/24 port LED will be turned off.
The security violation count will be incremented.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly
configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with C or host D. What is the cause of this problem?
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk.
The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked.
VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
18
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these
commands?
VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.
VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.
VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.
19
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is possible cause for this failure?
S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
20
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
21
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
QoS
routing
trunking
VPN
22 When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
subinterfaces
routing protocol
switched virtual circuits
dynamic trunking protocol
23
Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be to remedy the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.
Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.
24 Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot
your computer to establish a connection.
25
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size
the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available.

What is the problem?
The command contained a syntax error.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
The switch is sending and receiving data frames.The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
Cat-C
Cat-D
28
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
192.168.1.22 /28192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
29
Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer Which device or devices will receive this message?
only computer 4
computer 3 and RTR-Acomputer 4 and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A
computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A
all of the computers and the router
30
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. What will be pruned in the VTP advertisements from switch
ST-C to switch ST-1?
VLAN 30
VLAN 20 and VLAN 30
VLAN 1, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30
VLAN 2 through VLAN 29, and VLAN 31 through VLAN 1000
Showing 2 of 4
Close Window
All contents copyright 1992-2009 Cisco Systems, Inc. Privacy Statement and Trademarks.
Close Window
Assessment System
1. Assessment Selection 2. Assessment Settings 3. Take Assessment
Take Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
Wireless (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:
31
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the
switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
32
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
33
Refer to the exhibit. The switch VTY lines have been properly configured, but PC1 is unable to remotely manage the switch. How can
this problem be resolved?
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch in trunk mode.
Configure a default gateway on the switch.Configure the native VLAN on the switch.
Configure the Fa0/1 interface of the switch to allow all VLANs.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message
when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?
The enable secret password was not set.
S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.
S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.
The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
35
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface
fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish trunk.
36
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
SSIDOFDM
WEP
DSSS
37
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
38
Refer to the exhibit. In what two ways will the router handle VLAN traffic that is received on the trunk? (Choose two.)
Traffic to VLAN 1 received by the router interface Fa0/0 will be dropped by the router.Because interface Fa0/0 requires an IP address, the router will not be able to route between the VLANs.
Packets that are received from network 192.168.20.0 /24 will be handled by subinterface Fa0/0.20.The router will use subinterface MAC addresses to identify the VLAN traffic that is received on the physical interface.
The router will continue to process traffic from the attached VLANs even if the physical interface goes down.
http://www.ccna4u.org
39
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other
switches in the same domain?
client
root
server
transparent
40
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
configuring trunk links on the VTP server
configuring or changing the VTP password
configuring or changing the VTP domain name
configuring or changing the VTP version number
configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
41
Refer to the exhibit. Switches S2 and S3 are properly connected using an ethernet cable. A network administrator has configured both
switches with VTP, but S3 is unable to propagate VLANs to S2. What could be the reason for this?
The VTP configuration revision is different on both switches.
The VTP domains are different on both switches.
VTP pruning is disabled.
VTP v2 is disabled.
42
Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
Only VLAN 99 will be allowed to use the trunk links.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured with a standard trunking protocol.
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 should be configured as access ports to allow data from multiple VLANs to access switch S1.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 because all connected interfaces have been configured with the
switchport mode dynamic auto command.
43
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
44
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent
attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
45 Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
Showing 3 of 4
Close Window

Assessment System
1. Assessment Selection 2. Assessment Settings 3. Take Assessment
Take Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and
Wireless (Version 4.0)
Time Remaining:
46
Refer to the exhibit. The commands are entered into switch SW1 as shown, and an 802.1q trunk is successfully established. How does
switch SW1 handle the untagged traffic that is destined for the trunk?
SW1 will drop all untagged traffic.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 1.
SW1 will send all untagged traffic to VLAN 25.
SW1 will send untagged traffic to all VLANs that are configured on the trunk.
47
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond the network? (Choose two.)
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
48
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
49
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
DSSS
OFDM
SSID
WPA
50 What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
provides improved range
permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility
51
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal
strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
Increase the distance between the clients.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
52 Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
Available bandwidth is reduced.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
Showing 4 of 4
Close Window
http://www.ccna4u.org

Read More