CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 8 Exam Answers

1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

• backbone cable
• horizontal cable
• patch cable
• work area cable

2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45
• Type F

3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when connecting a router through the console port
• when connecting one switch to another switch
• when connecting a host to a switch
• when connecting a router to another router

4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
• the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
• the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
• the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously

5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

• Presentation
• Transport
• Data Link
• Physical

6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

• light injector
• OTDR
• TDR
• multimeter

7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

• coax
• Cat4 UTP
• Cat5 UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP

8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

• Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
• An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
• The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.

9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

• goodput
• frequency
• amplitude
• throughput
• crosstalk
• bandwidth

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

• coax cable
• rollover cable
• crossover cable
• straight-through cable

11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

• coax
• fiber
• Cat5e UTP
• Cat6 UTP
• STP

12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?

 

 

 

13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

• electrical
• optical
• wireless
• acoustic

14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

• generally uses LEDs as the light source
• relatively larger core with multiple light paths
• less expensive than multimode
• generally uses lasers as the light source

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

• more host mobility
• lower security risks
• reduced susceptibility to interference
• less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

• the metal braiding in the shielding
• the reflective cladding around core
• the twisting of the wires in the cable
• the insulating material in the outer jacket

18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
• provide physical addressing to the devices
• determine the path packets take through the network
• control data access to the media

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CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 9 Exam Answers

1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer

3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

• the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable

4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution

5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol
• makes the connection with the upper layers identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting

7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link
• Control sublayer
• Network layer

8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

• header field – preamble and stop frame
• data field – network layer packet
• data field – physical addressing
• trailer field – FCS and SoF

10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.

12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access

13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses

14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.

16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long

17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications

18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair

19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 85
• 90
• BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C

20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time

21. Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

• route PRINT
• arp -a
• arp -d
• netstat
• telnet

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CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 10 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point

4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.

6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45

7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096

8. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail

9. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

12. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

• wireless access point
• router
• hub
• switch

13. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5

14. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device

15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable

16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

• cross-over
• straight-through
• roll-over
• patch cable

20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface

21. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater

23. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7

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CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 11 Exam Answers

1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration

3. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

• enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret cisco
  enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password class
  line console 0
  password ccna
• enable secret cisco
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0
  password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
  enable password 7 14141E0A1F17
  line console 0
  password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

• AUX
• Ethernet
• Console
• Telnet
• SSH

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
  RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line vty 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
  RouterB(config)# line aux 0
  RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
  RouterB(config-vty)# login

6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description

12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

• show flash
• show NVRAM
• show startup-config
• show running-config
• show version

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check

14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z

16. The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C.

• What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?
• Ping router B S0/1 connection from router C.
• Trace the connection between router B to router C S0/1.
• Issue a show ip route command in router B to verify routing is enabled.
• Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

• RAM
• ROM
• Flash
• NVRAM

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
console
19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH

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